English Quiz : Vocabulary

Question 1 Which of the following means ‘’use (something) to maximum advantage.’’?

A  Impotence  B Leverage C Rollback  D  Permeate  E None of these

Impotence - inability to take effective action; helplessness.

Leverage - use (something) to maximum advantage.

Rollback - restore (a database) to a previously defined state. ,a reduction or decrease. 

Permeate - spread throughout (something); pervade.

Question 2 Which of the following is Most Similar to ‘Bleak’ ?

A  Dismal  B  Jolly  C  Sunny  D  Mirthful  E  None of these

Dismal - causing a mood of gloom or depression.

Jolly- happy and cheerful.

Sunny - (of a person or their temperament) cheery and bright.

Mirthful - full of mirth; merry or amusing.

Question 3  Which of the following word is most similar to ‘Disruptive’ ?

A   Emollient  B    Commutation    C  Rollback   D  Obstreperous  E   None of these

Emollient - having the quality of softening or soothing the skin.

Commutation- reduce (a judicial sentence, especially a sentence of death) to another less severe one.

Rollback - restore (a database) to a previously defined state.

Obstreperous -noisy and difficult to control.

Question 4  Which of the following means ‘spread throughout (something’ ?

A  Pervade  B  Permeate  C  Penetrate  D  Suffuse  E  All of these  

Pervade - (especially of a smell) spread through and be perceived in every part of.

Permeate - spread throughout (something); pervade.

Penetrate - go into or through (something), especially with force or effort.

Suffuse -gradually spread through or over.

Question 5 Which of the following means overwhelm (someone) with things or people to be dealt with” 

A  Indigent  B  Meager   C  Drained  D  Swamped  E   None of these

Indigent - poor; needy.

Meager - (of something provided or available) lacking in quantity or quality.

Drained -  cause the water or other liquid in (something) to run out, leaving it empty or dry.

Swamped - overwhelm or flood with water.

Question 6 Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning to the word ‘rumbustious’?

A  Rollicking  B  Phlegmatic  C  Boisterous  D  Ebullient  E  Clamorous

Rumbustious means boisterous or unruly. While rollicking, boisterous, ebullient and clamorous all mean the same as rumbustious, phlegmatic means calm. Hence B is the correct answer.

Question 7 Which of the following is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘saccharine’?

A Obstinate B  Ingratiating  C Convalescent  D Effusive E Duteous 

Saccharine means sweet, respectful, complaisant or sentimental. Ingratiating means the same as saccharine. Obstinate is the opposite of complaisant, hence keep it on hold. Convalescent means improving. Effusive means the same as sentimental. Duteous means courteous, mannerly.

Hence, obstinate is the most suitable response.

Question 8 Which of the following is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘perfidious’?

A   Mendacious  B  Duplicitous  C  Treasonous  D  Treacherous

E  Steadfast

Perfidious means untrustworthy. While mendacious, duplicitous, treasonous and treacherous mean the same as perfidious, steadfast means loyal. Hence E is the correct answer.

Question 9 Which of the following is the MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word ‘saturnine’?

A   Jaunty  B   Celestial  C  Lugubrious  D  Ethereal  E   Halo

Saturnine means gloomy. While lugubrious means gloomy, jaunty means cheerful, and celestial and ethereal mean heavenly. Similarly, halo means a circle of light placed above the head of an angel or God. Hence, lugubrious has a similar meaning to saturnine. The correct answer is C.

Question 10 Which of the following represents "a position counting as a draw, in which a player is not in check but cannot move except into check"?

A Selvage  B  Hinder C Stalemate D Buoy E None of these 

Stalemate (noun) (गतिरोध)–a position counting as a draw, in which a player is not in check but cannot move except into check

IBPS CLERK PRELIMS PRATICE PAPER

Dear Students ,

We know that you all are working hard in order to crack the IBPS Clerk Preliminary 2017. As always, we  would like to help you yet again. 
Hence, we are providing you the Practice Mock Test for IBPS Clerk Preliminary 2017. In the Mock Test, we are covering Reasoning, Quantitative Aptitude and English.
Hope the Mock proves to be successful for you all..!

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Government Exams,Banks Preparation, Railway Exams and others

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PRATICE PAPER Click here to download IBPS CLERK PRELIMS

IBPS PO/SO/ RRB PO /SO CLERK SBI SSC CGL Machine Input-OutPut difficultt level

Direction(06-10):Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of the Input and its rearrangement.

Input: tree 96 23 under 48 busy 37 own 62 axe

Step I: 23 tree 96 under 48 busy 37 own 62 axe

Step II: 23 37 tree 96 under 48 busy own 62 axe

Step III: 23 37 96 tree under 48 busy own 62 axe

Step IV: 23 37 96 62 tree under 48 busy own axe

Step V: 23 37 96 62 48 tree under busy own axe

Step VI: 23 37 96 62 48 under tree busy own axe

Step VII: 23 37 96 62 48 under own tree busy axe

Step VIII: 23 37 96 62 48 under own axe tree busy

Step IX: 23 37 96 62 48 under own axe busy tree

Step IX: is the last step of the rearrangement.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the input given below.

Input: bank 24 interest 17 51 42 summer hot 68 33 earn

6). Which of the following would be the last step of the arrangement?

a)   VII

b)   VIII

c)   IX

d)   X

e)   None of these

Answer: c)

7). In step IV, which of the following numbers/words would be at 7th position from the left?

a)   24

b)   bank

c)   42

d)   interest

e)   None of these

8). Which step number would be the following output?

17 33 51 68 42 24 interest bank summer hot earn

a)   VI

b)   VII

c)   V

d)   VIII

e)   There will be no such step

9). In step VI of the rearrangement, if ‘68’ is related to ‘summer’ in a certain way, which of the following would ‘42’ be related to, following the same pattern?

a)   interest

b)   51

c)   summer

d)   hot

e)   None of these

10). Which of the following would be the second-last step of the rearrangement?

a)   17 33 51 42 68 24 earn interest hot summer bank

b)   17 33 51 24 42 68 interest earn bank hot summer

c)   17 33 51 68 42 24 interest earn bank summer hot

d)   17 33 51 68 42 24 earn interest bank summer hot

e)   None of these

Answers:                       

1). b)  2). c)  3). a)  4). d)  5). e)  6). c)  7). d)  8). b)  9). d)  10). c)

SBI PO 2017 Practice Paper for Data Interpretation

Q.1. What was the difference between the total hardware sale in exports sector in 2005-06 and 2006-

07 together and hardware sale in domestic sector in 2006-07?

a) Rs.150cr

b) Rs.200cr

c) Rs.300cr

d) 400cr

e) None of these

Q.2. What was the difference in the average sale of hardware between the domestic and exports

sector?

a) 600cr

b) 750cr

c) 900cr

d) 1560cr

e) None of these

Q.3. Approximately what was the percentage increase in the sale of hardware in domestic sector from 2006-07 to 2008-09?

a) 25

b) 30

c) 35

d) 40

e) None of these

Q.4. What was the difference in the sale of hardware between domestic and export markets in 2006-

07?

a)500 Cr

b)700 Cr

c)1000 Cr

d)1200 Cr

e) None of these

Q.5. In which of the following years was the percentage increase in sale of hardware in domestic sector maximum over the proceeding year?

a) 2004-05

b) 2006-07

c) 2007-08

d)2008-09

e) None of these

(1)Ans: 3 (2)Ans: 5 (3)Ans: 5 (4)Ans: 2 (5)Ans: 3

Recruitment to the post of Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff in Different States and Union Territories 2016

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION 

NOTICE

Date of Advertisement: 31.12.2016 

Date of Examination: 16.04.2017, 30.04.2017, 07.05.2017 

Closing Date: 30.01.2017 

Recruitment to the post of Multi Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff in Different States and Union Territories


2016 COMMON INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY. 

F.No.3/6/2016-P&P-I(Vol-I). The Staff Selection Commission is making recruitment to the posts of Multi Tasking Staff in Pay Band-1( 5200- 20200/-) + Grade Pay 1800/-,(Revised Pay Scale after 7th CPC Pay Matrix Level – 01) a General Central Service Group ‘C’ Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial post in various Central Government Ministries / Departments / Offices, in different States / Union Territories. The Commission proposes to hold a Common Examination for all applicants for posts in different States / UTs on 16.04.2017, 30.04.2017 and 07.05.2017 and if required on subsequent dates. Candidates shortlisted on the basis of their performance in the examination will be required to appear for a descriptive type qualifying paper for testing basic language skills. The date of descriptive paper will be intimated in due course.

2. Vacancies / Reservation : Vacancy position indicated by the Regional Offices of the Commission in different States / UTs is tentative. Firm number of vacancies for the post of Multi Tasking Staff, will be determined by them in due course. ( Annexure-XI) Note-I :Reservation for SC/ST/OBC/PH/ExS etc. categories is available as per extant Govt. Orders. Note-II : The Commission reserves the right to fill up analogous posts in other Ministries/Organizations under the Government from this recruitment. 

3. Eligibility/Permissible disability for PH candidates: One Leg affected (OL), One Arm affected (OA), One Arm One Leg affected (OAL), Both Leg Affected but not Arm (BL), Blind(B), Low Vision (LV), Hearing (H), Communication (C) are eligible of the post of Multi Tasking Staff. 2 

4. NATIONALITY / CITIZENSHIP: A candidate must be either: 

(a) a citizen of India, or

(b) a subject of Nepal, or 

(c) a subject of Bhutan, or 

(d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India, before the 1st January,1962, with the intention of permanently settling in India, or 

(e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, 

East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania(Formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar),Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the Examination but the offer of appointment will be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.

 (5) AGE LIMIT: 18-25 years as on 01.08.2017 (i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 02.08.1992 and not later than 01.08.1999) Note I: Candidate should note that Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation / Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate available on the date of submission of application will only be accepted by the Commission for determining the Age- eligibility and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted . 

(6) EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION : ( As on 01.08.2017) Must have passed Matriculation Examination OR equivalent from a recognized Board. 

Note: Candidates who have not acquired but will acquire the educational qualification and acquire documentary evidence from the Board/University in support thereof as on 01.08.2017 will also be eligible. 

(7). MODE OF PAYMENT: Application Fee & Mode of Payment: Rs. 100 (One hundred only) Candidate may note that only online applications will be accepted at: http://ssconline.nic.in. 

All Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Physically Handicapped, and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation are exempted from paying application fee, as per extant government orders. 

7(i). The candidates who are not exempted from paying examination fee may submit the requisite fee through State Bank of India only either in the form of challan, generated on line, or through SBI Net Banking. Payment can also be made through any Credit or Debit Card. 

 7(ii). Fee once paid will not be refunded under any circumstance. 

8. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION: 

(A) SCHEME OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION AND SYLLABUS: The written examination will consist of (Paper-I) objective type paper and (PaperII) descriptive type as shown below :

   

NOTE-V: Paper-II will be held only for such candidates who meet the cut-off prescribed by the Commission in Paper-I for different categories. The date and time of the Paper will be communicated to shortlisted candidates in due course. Commission reserves the right to set separate qualifying standard in any Part of 

Paper-I. Indicative Syllabus for written examination: 

Paper-I Questions on ‘General Intelligence and Reasoning’ will be non-verbal considering the functions attached to the post. Questions on Numerical Aptitude and General English will be simple, of a level that an average matriculate will be in a position to answer comfortably. Questions on General Awareness will be also of similar standard. 

General Intelligence: It would include questions of non-verbal type. The test will include questions on similarities and differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgment, decision making, visual memory, discriminating observation, relationship concepts, figure classification, arithmetical number series, non-verbal series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate’s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationship, arithmetical computation and other analytical functions.

English Language : Candidates' understanding of the Basics of English Language, its vocabulary, grammar, sentence structure, synonyms, antonyms and its correct usage, etc. his/her writing ability would be tested. 

Numerical Aptitude: This paper will include questions on problems relating to Number Systems, Computation of Whole Numbers, Decimals and Fractions and relationship between Numbers, Fundamental arithmetical operations, Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Averages, Interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, use of Tables and Graphs, Mensuration, Time and Distance, Ratio and Time, Time and Work, etc. 

General Awareness: Questions will be designed to test the ability of the candidate’s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions will also be designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to Sports, History, Culture, Geography, Economic scene, General Polity including Indian Constitution, and Scientific Research etc. These questions will be such that they do not require a special study of any discipline. NOTE: For VH candidates of 40% and above visual disability and opting for SCRIBE there will be no component of Maps/Graphs/Diagrams/Statistical Data in the General Intelligence & Reasoning / General Awareness Paper. 

Paper-II: The Paper will be set in English and Hindi and to the extent possible in other languages mentioned in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution as given in Annexure-X , to test basic language skills commensurate with the educational qualification prescribed for the post. Candidates will be required to write one short essay/letter in English or any language included in the 8th schedule of Constitution.

  

RRB Scores are declared for scale I,II,III

Check your score at www.ibps.in
Weightage score can be obtained

marks in professional *1 + reasoning *1 + quantitative*1+ hindi/english*0. 50+ computer knowledge *0.50+ financial awareness*1

IBPS Scale -II IT officer

IBPS Scale -II IT officer Batch 2 Evening Shift @ 1:30 pm question analysis

Financial awareness :

•  Who is team leader of promoting digital cash team ?
• First cash less village of India ?
• The period of magazine launch by RBI ?
• To help NABARD to issue money to former amount of money lend by RBI to NABARD ?
• Full name of KSE ?
• Meaning of S in IFSC ? 

COMPUTER AWARENESS :

• Process of take down data from server to local PC 
• The network within building or area ?
• Computer programmes are written...?
• The area where different person are connected to internet with their laptops, PDAs and other devices ?

Exam Dates for IBPS Clerk is declared

IBPS has announce it's exam date for CWE Clerk Exam.You Can download your admit card on following link :

http://ibps.sifyitest.com/crpclkcviaug16/clpea_nov16/login.php?appid=4cf76d3b5d3b08c79717517f25635f90


Click here for downloading Information Handout in English :

http://www.ibps.in/wp-content/uploads/IBPS_CWE__Clerk_VI_2016_Eng.pdf


Click here for downloading Information Handout in Hindi:

http://www.ibps.in/wp-content/uploads/IBPS_CWE_Clerk_VI_2016_Hindi.pdf

For any other updates please visit 




Pattern of exam will be as follows :

I. Preliminary Examination :

Sr. No.	Name of the Test	No. of Questions	Max. Marks	Duration
1.	English Language	30	30	Composite time of 1 hour
2.	Numerical Ability	35	35	Composite time of 1 hour
3.	Reasoning Ability	35	35	Composite time of 1 hour
	Total	100	100	Composite time of 1 hour

The candidates shall be required to qualify in each test as per cut-off marks determined in each test. Each candidate
will have to secure a minimum score on each of the tests as well as on the Total to be considered to be
shortlisted for Main Examination. Depending on the number of vacancies available, cutoffs will be decided
and candidates will be shortlisted for Main Examination. However decision of IBPS in this regard shall be
final and binding upon the candidates.


II. Main Examination : Main Examination consisting of Objective Tests for 200 marks will also be conducted online. The test would be of 2 hours duration.

Software Engineering

Q.1  The most important feature of spiral model is    
    (A)  requirement analysis. (B)  risk management. 
   (C)  quality management. (D)  configuration management.
  
 Ans: B

Q.2 The worst type of coupling is 
(A) Data coupling. (B)  control coupling.
(C)  stamp coupling. (D)  content coupling. 

 Ans: D 

Q.3  IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for 
(A) Software requirement specification.
(B) Software design.
(C)Testing.
(D) Both (A) and (B) 

 Ans: A 
       
Q.4  One of the fault base testing techniques is
   (A)  unit testing. (B) beta testing.  
   (C) Stress testing. (D) mutation testing.
  
 Ans: D

Q.5  Changes made to an  information system to add the desired but not necessarily the
required features is called   
(A) Preventative maintenance. 
(B) Adaptive maintenance.
(C) Corrective maintenance. 
(D) Perfective maintenance. 

 Ans: D 

Q.6  All the modules of the system are integrated and tested as complete system in the 
case of
(A) Bottom up testing (B)  Top-down testing
(C)  Sandwich testing (D)  Big-Bang testing 

 Ans: D 
Q.7  SRS is also known as specification of 

 Ans: D 
(A)  White box testing (B) Stress testing
(C)  Integrated testing (D) Black box testing  

Q.8  The model in which the requirements are implemented by category is   
(A) Evolutionary Development Model         
(B) Waterfall Model
(C) Prototyping        
(D) Iterative Enhancement Model 

 Ans: A

Q.9  SRD stands for 
(A) Software requirements definition 
(B) Structured requirements definition 
(C) Software requirements diagram 
(D) Structured requirements diagram

Ans: B